Dave
Guest
Sat May 14, 2005 8:45 pm
Suppose you have 220 volts AC and a load such as an
electric fan. Is the current before and after the
load exactly 100% similar in value? Are there loads
wherein the current can become different before and
after the load. If they are all 100% exactly the
same. How come the two parallel electric cord glued
together commonly used in appliances still has residue
magnetic field (like 1.5mG) and they don't cancel 100%.
They theoretically should since the current before and
after the load is exactly the same so the magnetic field
is exactly 180 degrees out of phase so 0 mG output should
suppose to occur.
Thanks.
Dave
Dave
Guest
Sat May 14, 2005 10:29 pm
R.Lewis wrote:
Quote:
"Dave" <davidqanta_at_yahoo.com> wrote in message
news:1116103520.136133.144900_at_g47g2000cwa.googlegroups.com...
Suppose you have 220 volts AC and a load such as an
electric fan. Is the current before and after the
load exactly 100% similar in value? Are there loads
wherein the current can become different before and
after the load. If they are all 100% exactly the
same. How come the two parallel electric cord glued
together commonly used in appliances still has residue
magnetic field (like 1.5mG) and they don't cancel 100%.
They theoretically should since the current before and
after the load is exactly the same so the magnetic field
is exactly 180 degrees out of phase so 0 mG output should
suppose to occur.
Thanks.
Dave
If the currents were not identical where the difference current go?
Radiated.
At what portion of the circuit does it have possibility of
radiating? The circuit is just composed of an electric
bulb and wires plug to AC. You mean the bulb radiate the
missing current as EM?
Dave
Dave
Guest
Sat May 14, 2005 11:29 pm
Boris Mohar wrote:
Quote:
On 14 May 2005 13:45:20 -0700, "Dave" <davidqanta_at_yahoo.com> wrote:
Suppose you have 220 volts AC and a load such as an
electric fan. Is the current before and after the
load exactly 100% similar in value? Are there loads
wherein the current can become different before and
after the load. If they are all 100% exactly the
same. How come the two parallel electric cord glued
together commonly used in appliances still has residue
magnetic field (like 1.5mG) and they don't cancel 100%.
They theoretically should since the current before and
after the load is exactly the same so the magnetic field
is exactly 180 degrees out of phase so 0 mG output should
suppose to occur.
Thanks.
Dave
Current in is same as current out. That is the LAW. The magnetic
fields do
not cancel exactly because they are not occupying same space.
Try this for fun:
http://motionmountain.com/
Regards,
Boris Mohar
I see. In a typical electrical cord, there is a few distance in mm
between the 2 parallel wires with opposing magnetic field. So
not all magnetic field cancel as you say. Do you know of a drawing
or illustration in a site of the residue magnetic field produced
or an illustration of the graphics of the magnetic field being
in the act of being canceled. Thanks.
Dave
Dave
Guest
Mon May 16, 2005 6:04 am
Don Kelly wrote:
Quote:
"Dave" <davidqanta_at_yahoo.com> wrote in message
news:1116103520.136133.144900_at_g47g2000cwa.googlegroups.com...
Suppose you have 220 volts AC and a load such as an
electric fan. Is the current before and after the
load exactly 100% similar in value? Are there loads
wherein the current can become different before and
after the load. If they are all 100% exactly the
same. How come the two parallel electric cord glued
together commonly used in appliances still has residue
magnetic field (like 1.5mG) and they don't cancel 100%.
They theoretically should since the current before and
after the load is exactly the same so the magnetic field
is exactly 180 degrees out of phase so 0 mG output should
suppose to occur.
Thanks.
Dave
-The currents are the same. The reason that there is a residual field
is
because the two current "filaments" are not exactly in the same
location
with respect to anything beyond the wires. The field at a distance r
from
one wire is proportional to I/r while that due to the other is due to
I/(r+d) where d is the distance between the wires. Complete
cancellation
only occurs at points equidistant from both conductors.
--
Don Kelly
dhky_at_peeshaw.ca
remove the urine to answer
--------
I see. So if one wire has 10 mG, the second one has 10 mG opposite
in vector, because they are not in the same position in space, there
is a residual 0.8 mG left. Do you know a url that has illustration
what part of the waveform are cancelled and what part of the
waveform survives to create the 0.8 mG.
I wonder if the 0.8 mG left in the above configuration is 100%
the same in waveform shape, etc. than a single wire that emit
0.8 mG. What do you think?
Dave
